by Wayne Jackson Christian Courier: Feature Friday, July 1, 2005

Some sincere Christians contend that the child of God may not address Christ, either in praise or through prayer. Will this case stand in the light of critical investigation? Carefully study this issue with us. A sincere brother asks: "Is it ever appropriate to pray to Jesus? Did he not teach us to pray, 'Our Father' (Matthew 6:9)? Did he not instruct his disciples that the time would come when nothing would be asked of him (John 16:23)?" Others ask, "Is it appropriate to sing praises wherein Christ is addressed directly?"

There appears to be a sincere, though vocal, minority within the brotherhood of Christ that opposes any form of communication on the part of the Christian with the resurrected and ascended Son of God.

Some allege that no prayer or praise of any sort may be directed to Jesus. Others suggest that while we may not pray to Christ, we are permitted to sing to him. One leading advocate of this theory contends that words may be sung to the Savior, but those identical words become sinful if "spoken" rather than "sung" - even though singing is speaking (Ephesians 5:19). Still others allege that one may "speak" to the Lord (without a melody), but he may not "pray" to him - though the distinction between the two has not been made clear.

In this study, therefore, we propose to address this issue.

Matthew 6:9 What about Matthew 6:9? Does it restrict prayer to the Father alone? The fact that Jesus, in Matthew 6:9, was giving the disciples a brief and general outline of prayer, does not mean that such instruction covered all aspects of the theme. The sketch obviously is abbreviated. For example, there is no mention in this model about praying for the sick. Other biblical texts (e.g., James 5:14), however, allow for such.

There is an interpretive principle which suggests that in related topical contexts, one passage may expand upon another. Compare, for example, Mark 16:16 with Acts 2:38. The former text does not mention repentance, but who will deny that such is required for salvation? If, therefore, there is evidence elsewhere in the New Testament that Christ was addressed in prayer - and that without censure - that should bring the issue into balance.

John 16:23 The context of John 16:23 - "you shall ask me nothing" - is not dealing with whether or not one may "address" Jesus in prayer. Rather, the Lord was emphasizing to the disciples that the questions bothering them at the moment (cf. v. 17), later, with the coming of the Holy Spirit, would be perfectly clear to them. Hence, there would be no need for inquiries of the type they were posing. The fact that later on addresses are made to the Lord establishes the fact that John 16:23 does not speak to that issue.

The Nature of Deity If deity is worthy of worship (cf. Psalm 18:3), and if Jesus is deity (John 10:30), then he is worthy of worship. Jesus himself said that the Son should be honored just as the Father is (John 5:23). And yet, if Christ may not be worshipped, either in prayer or in song (as some allege), how is he to be glorified by his disciples? Does it seem reasonable that we may tell others of his greatness, but we may not breathe one word of thanksgiving to him personally?

Then this point is worthy of serious reflection: if deity is worthy of worship, and if Christ is deity, what position is the Christian in, if he withholds all worship from the Savior, and even opposes such? One of the characteristics of the "man of sin," as described in Paul's second letter to the church at Thessalonica, is that he "opposes and exalts himself against all that is called God or that is worshipped" (2:4). Christ is designated as "God" (John 1:1; Acts 20:28; Hebrews 1:8), and he accepted worship (Matthew 2:2; 14:33; Hebrews 1:6; Revelation 5:7ff). In whose company does this place those who oppose such today?

If it was right to worship Jesus while he was on earth, why is it now wrong? Did his nature somehow change by virtue of his entrance into heaven, so that now he is less than he was during his earthly ministry?

If one may communicate directly with only the Father, and the Son is thus completely excluded, how does Jesus function in the role of our "mediator" (1 Timothy 2:5)? Does a mediator have any real purpose if he merely stands on the sideline, and is not an active participant in the exchange of the two parties between whom he mediates? If a mediator is functioning on my behalf with another party, may I not communicate with the mediator personally? If not, of what significance is the term "mediator"?

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