Re: http://jmm.aaa.net.au/articles/12636.htm

No doubt it will surprise some that I actually did read the article. But I did. And what may surprise some even more is that I found it much better than most posts on the topic in these NGs.

I was particularly pleased, for example, with the author pointing out that the now popular argument that 1 Cor 6:9-10 refers to a particular form of prostitution only does _not_ hold water.

On this point, I am in complete agreement with the author. However, I see that the author makes the same mistake I see all too often in this NG, and in many Western exegetical publications: ignoring the testimony of the Greek Fathers concerning the meaning of expressions in Biblical Greek.

This is a _huge_ error! And it is _enormously_ relevant here. For the Greek Fathers are quite unanimous: not only in 1 Cor 6:9-10, but wherever Paul uses the word PORNEIA, he is condemning all forms of homosexual activity — and condemning it very harshly.

Now let’s not forget that particularly until the 8th century (at least), these Fathers spoke Koine Greek — the Greek of the NT — as their native language. So when they say that MALAKOI means ‘homosexuals’ (not just ‘effeminates’) in 1 Cor 6:9, they _must_ be taken seriously.

Another point the author could not treat is that Paul does not do this as an act of hatred for the sinner; he does it to warn the sinner away from a truly disastrous practice that hardens the soul in extreme impenitence — among other dangers.

Now why _did_ the author fail to treat that point? It seems to me that the reason is very simple — and tragic. Namely, the author himself is not quite convinced of the seriousness of that sin. This puts very serious limits on what he is able to do or understand, even if he is “an NT professor”.

(From a scholarly traditionalist on a Usenet newsgroup)

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