From: (Nigel B. Mitchell) Newsgroups: aus.religion.christian Subject: Re: Jewish thought Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:16:47 GMT On 20 Sep 1998 22:40:15 GMT, s32170 (Rod Jackson) wrote: >Does anyone know if it was unusual for a jew to call Psalms or Isaiah 'the >law'? It would be interesting to know your reasons for asking this question. The Hebrew word for the first five books of the Bible, "Torah", is usually translated as "Law" in English. This is unfortunate, because "Teaching" would be a more accurate translation. The Hebrew bible is arranged in a different order to Christian Bibles (and there is diversity amongst Christian Bibles as well). The Jewish word for the scriptures is *Tanakh*, which is an anagram of the words "Torah" (Teaching/Law), "Ne'biim" (Prophets), and "Khetubiim" (writings). Torah = the first five books Ne'biim = the prophetical and historical books Khetubiim = the poetic and philosophical books. At the time of Jesus there was strong consensus about the scriptural standing of the Torah and the Ne'biim, hence the phrase "Law and the prophets". The debates about the scriptural status and final list of the Khetubiim was yet to take place (the books which make up the apocrypha are included in this category). So the answer to your question is no. Jews have never referred to any part of their scripture as "The Law" - as we would commonly use that word in the English language. At the time of Jesus, Isaiah would have been regarded as a prophetic book, unquestionably scriptural. At the same time the book of Psalms would have been regarded as amongst the "Writings", and also considered authoritative scripture by most people. I hope these comments help to answer your question. Cheers N+ Nigel B. Mitchell
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