From: Gordon Coleman <> Newsgroups: aus.religion.christian Subject: Re: Aramaic Gospels.Sean (was catholic stuff) Date: Fri, 23 Apr 1999 11:27:25 +1000 Able, I'm genuinely confused by some of the comments you make here. They stand in stark contrast to everything I've heard and read from various scholars and historians (conservative, liberal and non-Christian alike). Able wrote: > > Hi Sean, > New things Sean..move on..move on.. > > I find this a compelling subject ( The Aramaic Gospels) and would like > to end the current interesting discussions with you in favour of > this. You have helped to focus my attention. Thank you. It is a > pleasure to correspond with such a bright and active mind., and a > somewhat of a gentleman atheist I may add. > > Anyway Sean, enough of the bulldust. > On to meatier things. > It is part and parcel of the same subject that we discussed before. > i.e The Gospel parallels etc. In which you have presented a case for > dependence of the Gospels on a Common Greek manuscript. > > First let me explain why I think the autograph of the Gospel of > Matthew was in Aramaic. > Now I will ramble on for a while..and will not be offended by > correction. Stop me if you have heard it all before. > Thoughts will come as I give them utterance in writing. > > 1. It is acknowledged that the Greek of Matthew is clumsy, and the > word order is odd..not at all like Luke, which is relatively > straightforward. I am not sufficiently familiar with Greek to > substantiate this personally, but I can reference quite a few Greek > Scholars who would not dispute this. My Chinese and Korean friends, who speak and write in English, produce similarly clumsy documents when they try to write in what is their second language. That doesn't necessarily mean that they were first written in another language - although it's entirely possible that Matthew based his gospel on memoirs he had recorded (in his native Aramaic) at an earlier stage. This is *not* an argument for translation (which would surely have been into "good" Greek if done by someone whose Greek was reasonable), but rather that the Greek version, translation or not, was written by someone whose written Greek was not great. A lot of documents from around this time, written in Greek by Hebrews, contain "Semitisms" - that is, word forms in the Greek language that reflect a tendency to adhere to grammatical constructions from the Aramaic or Hebrew. > 2. Papias quite unmistakably said that it was in the Hebrew tongue. > That they ( he was the Bishop of Heirapolis in SW Turkey ) had to > translate as best they could. Prime evidence I would suggest. A very difficult quotation to account for. I believe he actually says "Everyone translated as they were able", or words to that effect - which would imply that there should be multiple variant translations lying around. There aren't. > 3. Jesus spoke Aramaic, could anybody dispute this? > Most Scholars would say this is a given. > Aramaic is a sematic language , full of idioms and metaphors (such as > ..."thick as two short planks", it is interesting that Tigger cannot > come to grips with this or translate it accurately..) Aramaic was the "lingua franca" of the region Jesus grew up in. Hebrew was the language of religious learning. Greek was the language of trade, and the "lingua franca" of the wider world in which Jesus lived. > 4. The Gospel of Matthew was written to the Hellenistic Jews. > They spoke Aramaic..This is exactly the same language as the Hebrew of > Biblical times..not Hebrew of today..but the Hebrew language from > 700BC to 1300AD..at which time the language reverted to modern Arabic. > Except in a few villages near Damascus where it is preserved in tact > to this day. Wrong and wrong. The Old Testament was translated into Greek (the Septuagint) primarily for the benefit of Hellenisitic Jews, who could no longer read Hebrew because they had been secularised and isolated. Aramaic is *not* Hebrew. They are (and were) distinct languages, but are both Semitic. Aramaic was the language of the Babylonians, which is why Daniel is written half in Hebrew, half in Aramaic. > 5. The Hellenistic Jews spoke and wrote Aramaic..they did not speak > Greek. > Three points.. > a. A jewish saying of the time..It is better to feed your children pig > food than to teach them Greek. Source, please? It is clear that Peter and Paul, at least, spoke Greek, as they most certainly would not have been able to communicate the gospel to Gentiles in Hebrew or Aramaic. That said, much of their interaction between themselves, in first Century Judea, may well have been in Aramaic. My in-laws were Chinese folk who grew up in Cambodia. They are multilingual - their own dialect, which they use to talk to family members, two other Chinese dialects, Cambodian/Khmer for communication with the wider community, and (now) English, which they learned on arrival in Australia. Multilingualism is well-known in contexts such as this. > b.Josephus testimony..nobody ever profited from learning Greek. > Many Jews tried unsuccessfully. Others were obviously successful. See above. > c.Greek was not spoken in the area at all, > a case can (and has been ) made for Jesus never having even heard the > Greek Language spoken. So the words he spoke on the Cross were in > Aramaic..not Greek. His conversation with Pilate would most likely have been in Greek. A good case can be made for Jesus and the disciples being trilingual (though not necessarily equally fluent in all three languages). > d. It was undisputedly the Lingua Franca of the time and the place. > > So why would Matthew initially write to the Jews in anything else than > his and their native tongue? Because he intended his gospel to reach a wider audience than the immediate group for which he wrote? Just a thought. Regards, Gordon -- ======================================= Gordon Coleman School of Physiology and Pharmacology University of New South Wales Sydney NSW 2052 Australia Phone: +61-2-9385-2549 Fax: +61-2-9385-1059 =======================================
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