Hebrew Grammar

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Hebrew Grammar

By Rowland Croucher and others ⋅ January 5, 2003 ⋅ Post a comment

Subject: Re: Especially for Nigel (and Chris Ho-Stuart): Christ the creator
Date: 4 Oct 1999 22:31:29 GMT
From:  (Ken Smith)
Organization: University of Queensland
Newsgroups: aus.religion.christian

A minor comment about Hebrew grammar.

 (Graeme Hunt) writes:

>On 30 Sep 1999 05:53:04 GMT, Chris Ho-Stuart
><> wrote:

>>I am interested that you use "through" rather than "by" , following
>>the RSV rather than the KJV and NIV. Nigel also prefers this wording,
>>whereas Graeme uses "by" rather than "through".

>The two points I would make here are that a) I have already presented
>what the Greek says about this and it seems quite clear that it states
>that Christ was instrumental in the act of creation; b) As for Nigel,
>I would have had some respect for his views, even though I disagreed
>with them, if he had given some concrete evidence for them. This he
>refused to do and was therefore merely stating an unsubstantiated
>preference which he insisted was fact. For example, I asked him *why*
>he preferred "through".  He wouldn't answer. I suspect, no believe,
>he couldn't.

[deletions]

>An example of this intransigence was when I mentioned the name
>"Elohim" in Genesis chapter one where Nigel claimed it stated that the
>Father was the creator (which it doesn't at all).  He said Elohim was
>not plural. But there is no question that is IS plural. The suffix
>"im" is plural, just as with words like "seraph" (singular) and
>seraphim" (plural).  This is the exasperating tactic Nigel uses. He
>presents no scholarly evidence, only his opinions, when it is all
>boiled down, which he refuses to substantiate properly. His simplistic
>references to passages of scripture without explanation is not
>evidence. 

The word "elohim" is, grammatically, masculine plural.
However it is almost invariably used with the verb in the singular -
the first verse of Genesis provides the first example, and this
carries on throughout Genesis 1.

Despite this, the word has assorted meanings - in the plural sense it
is commonly used to refer to the gods of the surrounding nations.
And there are various renderings of it in Psalm 8:5
Are human beings a little lower than God?  or the gods?  or the
angels?

I am very wary of using grammatical pecularities of either Hebrew or
Greek to make theological deductions.
Otherwise you can get yourself into real difficulties.
How do we handle Genesis 1:2 where the wind from God/Spirit of God is
a rendering of ruah elohim?
ruah is feminine singular;
elohim is masculine plural.

[rest deleted]

>Graeme Hunt
>
>http://homepages.ihug.co.nz/~invictus  

Ken Smith